$MSPC || @Mytheris OK, so I have a real question (ie, not fuckin' with ya, not starting a fight). So, gun-to-the-head: Could you explain (in 1000 characters or less) how exactly dilution CAUSES a "downtrend" in the market? —oh, and it CAN'T include any version of the phrase, "because more shares decreases the value of each individual share you own". Why? Because, while that may be "true" in theory, it doesn' actually effect or change the PRICE PER SHARE on a given trading day. Again, could you (or anyone, since I'm posting this publicly) explain how exactly *dilution CAUSES a share price "downtrend" in a given stock? *[and, to further clarify: this could be dilution resulting from either convertible debt notes, secondary offerings and/or reverse splits] Thanks in advance. Best.
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